Jun-2026 Free CPC Test Questions Real Practice Test Questions
CPC Dumps Updated Jun 10, 2026 WIith 451 Questions
NEW QUESTION # 112
A patient with a history of chronic venous embolism in the inferior vena cava has a radiographic study to visualize any abnormalities. In outpatient surgery the physician accesses the subclavian vein and the catheter is advanced to the inferior vena cava for injection and imaging. The supervision and interpretation of the images is performed by the physician.
What codes are reported for this procedure?
- A. 36010, 75825-26
- B. 36000, 75825-26
- C. 36000, 75827-26
- D. 36010, 75827-26
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 113
Patient is diagnosed with dacryocystitis, which is the inflammation of?
- A. Eardrum
- B. Fingernail
- C. Cornea
- D. Lacrimal sac
Answer: D
Explanation:
Dacryocystitis is the inflammation of the lacrimal sac, which is part of the tear drainage system located in the inner corner of the eye. The lacrimal sac is connected to the nasolacrimal duct, which drains tears into the nasal cavity. Inflammation in this area can cause pain, redness, and swelling near the inner corner of the eye.
ICD-10-CM, medical dictionaries
NEW QUESTION # 114
A patient presents to the pulmonologist's office for the first time with coughing and shortness of breath. The patient has a history of asthma. The physician performs a medically appropriate history and exam. The following labs are ordered: CBC, arterial blood gas, and sputum culture. The pulmonologist assesses the patient with a new diagnosis of COPD. The patient is given a prescription for the inhaler Breo Ellipta.
What E/M code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 115
A 4-year-old, critically ill child is admitted to the PICU from the ED with respiratory failure due to an exacerbation of asthma not manageable in the ER. The PICU provider takes over the care of the patient and starts continuous bronchodilator therapy and pharmacologic support with cardiovascular monitoring and possible mechanical ventilation support.
What is the E/M code for this encounter?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
The code 99471 is used for initial inpatient neonatal critical care, per day, for the evaluation and management of a critically ill infant or young child. Given the scenario where a 4-year-old critically ill child is admitted to the PICU and requires intensive care management, this code is appropriate as it reflects the critical care provided beyond the emergency department services. References: CPT Professional Edition (current year), AMA.
NEW QUESTION # 116
A patient who is 37 weeks' gestation is admitted to labor and delivery for a cesarean delivery. An external cephalic version was performed successfully several days ago and she now presents in labor, fully dilated, and the fetus has returned to a footling presentation.
What anesthesia code is reported?
- A. 01958
- B. 01960
- C. 01967
- D. 01961
Answer: D
Explanation:
To determine the correct anesthesia code for a cesarean delivery with specific conditions, we review the following codes:
01961 is defined as "Anesthesia for cesarean delivery only," which aligns with this scenario, as the patient is admitted for a cesarean section.
01960 refers to anesthesia for a vaginal delivery, which does not apply here as the delivery is via cesarean.
01967 is for "Anesthesia for planned vaginal delivery," which also does not apply due to the cesarean route.
01958 is used for planned vaginal delivery that may involve a complicated scenario, but since the procedure is a cesarean section, this code is not appropriate.
Given that the patient is in labor for a cesarean section and has had a previous external cephalic version, 01961 is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 117
This 27-year-old male has morbid obesity with a BMI of 45 due to a high calorie diet. He has decided to have an open Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. The patient is brought to the operating room and placed in supine position.
A midline abdominal incision is made. The stomach is mobilized, and the proximal stomach is divided and stapled creating a small proximal pouch in continuity with the esophagus. A short limb of the proximal bowel of 155 cm is divided. It is brought up and anastomosed to the gastric pouch. The other end of the divided bowel is connected back into the distal small bowel to the short limb's gastric anastomosis to restore intestinal continuity. The abdominal incision is closed.
What are the procedure and diagnosis codes for this encounter?
- A. 43645, E66.8, Z68.42
- B. 43644, E66.01, Z68.43
- C. 43847, E66.9, Z68.42
- D. 43847, E66.01, Z68.42
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Open Roux-en-Y Gastric Bypass: The procedure involves creating a small gastric pouch and anastomosing it to the jejunum.
* CPT Code 43847: This code describes a surgical gastric restrictive procedure with gastric bypass for morbid obesity, open.
* ICD-10-CM Code E66.01: This code represents morbid (severe) obesity due to excess calories.
* ICD-10-CM Code Z68.42: This code indicates a BMI of 45.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 118
The gynecologist performs a colposcopy of the cervix including biopsy and endocervical curettage.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 119
A cardiologist uses the hospital's equipment for a cardiac stress test as he doesn't own equipment for the test.
He supervises the test and provides the interpretation and report of the test.
What CPT codes are reported?
- A. 93016, 93017, 93018
- B. 93016, 93018
- C. 93015, 93018
- D. 93015, 93016
Answer: B
Explanation:
Procedure: Cardiac stress test performed using hospital's equipment with the cardiologist providing supervision, interpretation, and report.
CPT Codes:
93016: This code is for supervision only without provision of the equipment.
93018: This code is for interpretation and report only.
Code Selection Justification: Since the cardiologist does not own the equipment, codes 93016 and 93018 correctly represent the supervision, interpretation, and report of the test.
AMA CPT Professional Edition (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 120
A surgeon removes the right and left fallopian tubes and the left ovary via an abdominal incision. How is this reported?
- A. 58700-50
- B. 0
- C. 1
- D. 58720-50
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy: This involves the removal of both fallopian tubes and ovaries.
* Right and left fallopian tubes: Both fallopian tubes are removed.
* Left ovary: Only the left ovary is removed.
* Abdominal incision: The procedure is performed via an abdominal approach.
* 58720: Salpingo-oophorectomy, complete or partial, unilateral or bilateral (separate procedure).
The procedure involves the removal of both fallopian tubes and one ovary, making 58720 the appropriate code.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year), HCPCS Level II (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 121
Which statement regarding lesion excision is TRUE?
- A. Lesion excision codes include removal of a lesion with margins, and complex closure when performed
- B. Lesion excision codes include removal of a lesion, with margins, and simple (nonlayered) closure when performed
- C. Lesion excision codes include removal of a lesion, with margins, and intermediate closure when performed
- D. Lesion excision codes are selected by measuring the greatest clinical diameter of a lesion excluding the margins required to complete the excision
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 122
An 8-year-old patient is placed under general anesthesia for treatment of a right orbital fracture due to a traumatic fall to the nose and face from a swing set. An on-call otolaryngologist is asked to perform a general otolaryngologic examination to evaluate the patient. A mild nasal fracture is the diagnosis given by the otolaryngologist.
What is the CPT and ICD-10-CM coding for the otolaryngologist's services?
- A. 21310, 92502-51
- B. 0
- C. 1
- D. 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPT Code Selection:
The otolaryngologist was asked to perform a general otolaryngologic examination of the patient under general anesthesia to evaluate for injuries sustained from a traumatic fall.
CPT Code 92502 is appropriate for a general otolaryngologic examination under general anesthesia. This code is used specifically when an ENT examination is performed under anesthesia, as was the case here.
2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 92512 is for nasal function studies, such as rhinomanometry, which does not apply to a general otolaryngologic examination.
Code 21310 is for the treatment of a nasal fracture (closed treatment), which would only be appropriate if the otolaryngologist had performed a fracture reduction or repair. Since only an examination was performed, 21310 is not appropriate.
Code 92502-51 (option B) is incorrect because the -51 modifier (multiple procedures) is unnecessary; only a single examination was performed.
3. ICD-10-CM Code:
Since only the examination was performed and not treatment, the ICD-10-CM code for nasal fracture (likely S02.2XXA for unspecified fracture of the nasal bones, initial encounter) would be reported separately by the facility or based on final documentation.
4. AAPC and CPT Coding Guidelines:
AAPC guidelines support the use of 92502 for general ENT examinations performed under anesthesia, especially in cases of trauma evaluation without surgical intervention.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. 92502.
NEW QUESTION # 123
What does the suffix -graph mean?
- A. Surgical repair by suture
- B. Instrument used for Z plasty
- C. Instrument for recording data
- D. Surgical binding by fusion
Answer: C
Explanation:
In medical terminology, the suffix -graph refers to an instrument used for recording data or the process of recording. This suffix is commonly tested on the CPC exam.
Examples include:
Electrocardiograph - instrument used to record heart activity
Angiograph - instrument used to record images of blood vessels
To distinguish from related suffixes:
-gram = the record or image itself
-graphy = the process of recording
Thus, option A is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 124
(A patient is seen by her podiatrist to treat a painfulleft ingrown toenailon the big toe. The podiatrist performs awedge excisionof the skin of the nail fold at the lateral margin. Local anesthetic is administered, and an elliptical incision is made through subcutaneous tissue of the affected nail groove. A wedge-shaped piece of soft tissue from the nail margins is removed. What CPT code is reported?)
- A. 11765-TA
- B. 11750-TA
- C. 11730-TA
- D. 11755-TA
Answer: A
Explanation:
The key phrase is"wedge excision of the skin of the nail fold"with removal of a wedge-shaped portion ofsoft tissueat the nail margin. This describesexcision of the nail and nail matrixprocedures used for ingrown toenails when the nail margin and/or matrix is treated more definitively than a simple avulsion. CPT11765is used forwedge excision of skin of nail fold(the classic code for the wedge excision approach). By contrast,
11730representssimple avulsion of the nail plate(removal of nail plate), which does not match a wedge excision of the nail fold soft tissue.11750describesexcision of nail and nail matrix(more matrix-focused wording) and is a common distractor; however, the vignette specifically emphasizes wedge excision of thenail fold.11755relates to nail procedures that do not match this scenario. The "TA" modifier indicatesleft great toefor anatomical specificity on the claim.
NEW QUESTION # 125
The outermost protective layer of skin is called the:
- A. Subcutaneous tissue
- B. Hypodermis
- C. Dermis
- D. Epidermis
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 126
(Which one of the following isNOTa cardiac valve?)
- A. Femoral valve
- B. Mitral valve
- C. Aortic valve
- D. Tricuspid valve
Answer: A
Explanation:
The human heart hasfour cardiac valves:tricuspid,pulmonic,mitral (bicuspid), andaortic. These valves regulate one-way blood flow through the heart's chambers and into the great vessels. Themitralvalve lies between the left atrium and left ventricle; thetricuspidvalve lies between the right atrium and right ventricle; theaorticvalve controls flow from the left ventricle to the aorta. "Femoral" refers to thefemur(thigh bone) and thefemoral artery/veinin the groin/thigh region, not a structure of the heart. While veins can contain valves (e.g., in the legs), the term "femoral valve" isnot recognized as a standard named cardiac valve. On CPC-style anatomy questions, distractors often use real anatomical words from other body regions to test whether you know the specific list of true cardiac valves.
NEW QUESTION # 127
A patient with malignant lymphoma is administered the antineoplastic drug Rituximab 800 mg and then 100 mg of Benadryl.
Which HCPCS Level II codes are reported for both drugs administered intravenously?
- A. J9312 x 80, J1200 x 2
- B. J9312, J1200
- C. J9312 x 80, 00163 x 2
- D. J9312, Q0163
Answer: B
Explanation:
The patient with malignant lymphoma is administered Rituximab (800 mg) and Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.
Procedure Description:
Administration of Rituximab (800 mg) intravenously.
Administration of Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.
HCPCS Level II Coding:
J9312: Injection, Rituximab, 10 mg.
For 800 mg, report 80 units of J9312.
J1200: Injection, Diphenhydramine HCl, up to 50 mg.
For 100 mg, report 2 units of J1200.
HCPCS Level II Code Book (current year).
HCPCS Level II coding guidelines for intravenous drug administration.
NEW QUESTION # 128
A patient arrives with stridor and in respiratory distress. The provider performs a micro laryngoscopy using a Parson's laryngoscope and magnifying telescope. A bronchoscopy was also performed using a 2.5 Stortz bronchoscope. The findings include subglottic web and stenosis with laryngeal edema suggestive of reflux. There was also significant collapse of the trachea at the carina and into the main bronchi bilaterally.
What CPT coding is reported?
- A. 31622, 69990
- B. 31622, 31526-51
- C. 31629, 31526-51
- D. 31622, 31526-51, 69990
Answer: B
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPT Code Selection:
The provider performed both a bronchoscopy and a microlaryngoscopy to evaluate the patient's airway due to respiratory distress and stridor.
Code 31622 is used for a diagnostic bronchoscopy, which includes the inspection of the trachea, carina, and bronchial structures. Since the bronchoscopy was diagnostic and no additional therapeutic procedures were performed, this is the appropriate code.
Code 31526 is for direct laryngoscopy with the use of an operating microscope or telescope (microlaryngoscopy). This code is appropriate given the use of a Parson's laryngoscope and magnifying telescope to inspect the larynx.
2. Modifier 51:
Modifier 51 is added to 31526 to indicate that it was performed in conjunction with another procedure (31622, bronchoscopy). Modifier 51 denotes multiple procedures without the necessity of a separate incision.
3. Exclusion of Code 69990:
Code 69990 is used for the use of an operating microscope in microsurgery but is not coded separately when the procedure (such as microlaryngoscopy) already includes visualization with a microscope or telescope as part of the CPT descriptor. Thus, 69990 is not separately reported in this scenario, per CPT guidelines.
4. AAPC and CPT Coding Guidelines:
The guidelines specify that when visualization or microlaryngoscopy is inherently part of the procedure (as in 31526), 69990 should not be billed separately. Also, the use of Modifier 51 for multiple procedures in the same session is appropriate.
Therefore, the verified answer, following the CPT and AAPC coding rules, is A. 31622, 31526-51.
NEW QUESTION # 129
An incision is made in the scalp, a craniectomy is performed to access the area where electrodes are present. The electrodes are removed. The surgical wound is closed.
What procedure code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
The procedure described involves the removal of electrodes from the cranial area after making an incision in the scalp and performing a craniectomy.
Procedure Description:
Incision in the scalp.
Craniectomy to access the area with electrodes.
Removal of electrodes.
Closure of the surgical wound.
CPT Coding:
61860: Removal of intracranial neurostimulator electrodes, including burr hole(s) or craniectomy.
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year).
CPT Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on neurostimulator procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 130
A catheter was placed into the abdominal aorta via the right common femoral artery access. An abdominal aortography was performed. The right and left renal artery were adequately visualized. The catheter was used to selectively catheterize the right and left renal artery. Selective right and left renal angiography were then performed, demonstrating a widely patent right and left renal artery.
What CPT coding is reported?
- A. 36252, 75625-26
- B. 36253, 75625-26
- C. 0
- D. 1
Answer: A
Explanation:
CPT code 36252 describes selective catheter placement of the main renal artery with angiography of both kidneys, which matches the procedure of selectively catheterizing the right and left renal arteries and performing angiography. Additionally, CPT code 75625-26 is for an abdominal aortography with interpretation and report. The -26 modifier indicates that the professional component of the service was performed.
Reference:
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year), Codes 36252, 75625-26
NEW QUESTION # 131
A 49-year-old patient arrives with hearing loss in his left ear. Impedance testing via tympanometry is performed.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 132
(The patient presents to the emergency department with chest pain. EKG showsNSTEMIand troponin is abnormal. The ED provider discusses the case with a cardiologist and the patient is admitted for heart catheterization/PCI. What is the E/M service and ICD-10-CM coding reported for the ED provider?)
- A. 99255, I21.4
- B. 99284, I21.4, R07.9
- C. 99254, I21.4, R07.9
- D. 99285, I21.4
Answer: D
Explanation:
An ED visit involvingNSTEMIwith abnormal troponin, EKG confirmation, and escalation to cardiology for admission representshigh acuityand high risk of morbidity/mortality, supporting the highest-level ED E/M in typical CPC exam scenarios:99285. The definitive ED diagnosis isNSTEMI, which is coded asI21.4. When a definitive diagnosis is established (NSTEMI), you generally do not separately code the presenting symptomchest pain (R07.9)as an additional diagnosis unless the symptom is unrelated or specifically required; here it is the presenting symptom attributable to the MI and not separately necessary. Options A and C use inpatient consult codes (99254/99255) rather than an ED E/M code and are inappropriate for the ED provider's service. Option D understates the acuity and incorrectly includes symptom coding as if no definitive diagnosis were made. Therefore, the correct answer is99285 with I21.4.
NEW QUESTION # 133
(A three-year-old patient returns forstage 2treatment for double right outlet syndrome. The surgeon removes apulmonary artery bandand performstransposition repair of the great vesselsvia aortic pulmonary reconstruction. Central cannulae are inserted forECMO bypass, chemical cardioplegia is initiated, and a physician assistant monitors vitals and oxygenation until heart function resumes. What CPT codes are reported for the surgery today?)
- A. 33778-78, 33953-78, 33985-78
- B. 33779-78, 33953-78, 33985-78
- C. 33778-58, 33955-58, 33985-58
- D. 33779-58, 33955-58, 33985-58
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is aplanned stagedcongenital cardiac repair following prior pulmonary artery banding, so the correct postoperative modifier concept isstaged/related(modifier-58), not an unplanned return-to-OR modifier (-78).
The operative service includesremoval of the pulmonary artery bandandarterial switch/transposition-type repairof the great vessels (captured in the 33778/33779 family in the answer choices). The case also describes use ofECMOwith central cannulation and management during the procedure, which is reported with the appropriate ECMO initiation/management codes shown as33955and the monitoring/assistant-related component represented by33985in the choices. Because this is thesecond stageof care and described as planned definitive repair, the -58 modifier is appropriate on the reported surgical services in these answer constructs. OptionDcorrectly pairs the staged modifier (-58) with the appropriate congenital repair and ECMO-related coding listed in the question's options.
NEW QUESTION # 134
A 45-year-old patient presents with right shoulder pain. The provider administers three trigger point injections in the trapezius muscle and two in the pectoralis muscle.
What CPT coding is reported?
- A. 20552 ×5
- B. 20552 ×2
- C. 0
- D. 1
Answer: D
Explanation:
20552 = Injection(s); single or multiple trigger points, 1-2 muscles
Total muscles injected = 2 (trapezius + pectoralis)
Number of injections does not determine code selection-number of muscles does
NEW QUESTION # 135
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